[lork]

Player 1 holds KTd
Player 2 holds 88

Flop is Ad 8d 2d

There is one "out" that will save Player two, but two cards to come.
1 out * 4 = 4%

Player 1 has a 96% chance of winning?

For the odds...
(100/4) - 1 = 24
24:1
Every 25 times this happens, Player Two will win once?

If this is incorrect in any way, please let me know.

[pritz]

Player 2 has a 34.4% chance of winning before the turn card. If the turn is a rag, he has a 22.7% chance of winning on the river card. This assumes 2 players only in the hand.

[ballen]

Player 2 has alot more than 1 out after the flop. He could get the 4th 8 for quads, any A or 2 for a full house, and any running pair for a full house.

[lork]

Opps! I guess I shouldn't try to calculate odds when I can't even read the board!

I think I got it now...

7 outs that he'll get the House on the turn.
7*2 = 14%
If the he misses it on the turn he has 10 outs
10*2 = 20%
14%+20%=34%

The Card Player Calculator says it is actually 34.4% which isn't off much.

For the odds...
(100/34%) - 1
1.94:1

So player two should win once out of about every 3 times this situation occurs?

So if player two has to call 100 dollars into a 1000 dollar pot, his pot odds are 10:1 meaning he must win one for eleven pots to break even. Since he should win about 1 out of every 3 times, he should call the 100 dollars.

But if he has to call 100 into the same a hundred dollar pot, its 1:1 and he shouldn't call since he needs to win half of the time to break even.

Is the above correct and if not, please tell me what I did wrong (Sorry for these types of questions because I'm sure you hate them!).

[johnf]

A 3 of a kind on the flop is 2:1 against improving to a full house in the next two cards in holdem. I don't know exactly how to figure odds on two seperate events (turn and river cards), so I memorize some odds that come up frequently. I can figure the odds for one card at a time, but you seem to have a working knowledge of odds already so I won't get into that.

Getting back on track, your example on pot odds is correct if those players will be all-in and can't bet anymore. If there's 100 in the pot, Player A bets $100 and is all-in, then Player B can call with just the tiniest bit of overlay, but it's essentially a breakeven proposition(1.94:1 card odds vs 2:1 pot odds). If you have to call 1 unit to win 2 or more units and you won't face any more bets on 4th or 5th street then it's a profitable call. If you have to call bets on the turn, then it changes things. You're 3.6:1 against filling up on the river card, so you have to get 3.6:1 or better in your pot odds on the turn betting round to make it a profitable call on the turn.

There's also implied odds, which are simply how much you can win if you DO make your hand. You shouldn't worry too much about those until you have a firm grasp on card odds vs immediate pot odds though. Basically, with implied odds you can make some calls that immediate pot odds do not justify, but getting paid off if you hit can make it worthwhile.

Card odds, immediate pot odds, effective pot odds, and implied odds all work together to help you make your decisions, but it's easiest to have a firm grasp on each one before you tackle the next.

I don't hate answering any questions, well besides educating possible opponents.Don't be scared to fire away! I'll throw out the disclaimer that I might not always be 100% right, but others will usually step in if anyone is giving out bad information.

[BigAl]

Useful note to bear in mind there John, I would advise people take a note of the changes that occur if you're calling bets - it's all very well to say I've got good enough odds to justify calling/betting, only to realise you've then got to match up or fold to a bet further round the table.

I'm no expert on odds, I can barely remember anything like that, though I do have some loose ideas of when it's financially viable to bet and when my chances simply don't justify anymore chips.